I Need Another Clarification - Baseball
Posted: Tue Mar 22, 2011 7:06 pm
Runners on 1st and 2nd. Batter hits ball that hits the umpire (between 2nd & 3rd) and ricochets off his ankle.
What's the call?
What's the call?
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I Need Another Clarification - Baseball
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Re: I Need Another Clarification - Baseball
Posted: Tue Mar 22, 2011 7:13 pm
the umpire is in play. there is no call. runners advance at their own risk.
Re: I Need Another Clarification - Baseball
Posted: Tue Mar 22, 2011 7:16 pm
This.citdog wrote:the umpire is in play. there is no call. runners advance at their own risk.
Re: I Need Another Clarification - Baseball
Posted: Tue Mar 22, 2011 7:32 pm
Sounds like a football umpire.
Re: I Need Another Clarification - Baseball
Posted: Tue Mar 22, 2011 7:38 pm
It was ruled a Dead Ball but the runners were allowed to advance and the batter got first.
Explain that one.
One part of Dead ball rule reads
A fair ball touches an umpire before it has passed an infielder other than the pitcher
Interference rule states:
(2) When a fair ball touches an umpire on fair territory before passing a fielder. (doesn't state to include or exclude pitcher)
On any interference the ball is dead.
This is confusing and seems circular
Here's the thing, if the runners are allowed to go to the base "they would have attained and are entitled to" how does that wash here? If the ball had not hit the Ump it was an easy 6-4, end of inning play, no runners advance, the batter doesn't get to first.......see my confusion?
Ok, the guy on 2nd gets, technically, left on 3rd and the batter technically gets a FC but you get my drift
Explain that one.
One part of Dead ball rule reads
A fair ball touches an umpire before it has passed an infielder other than the pitcher
Interference rule states:
(2) When a fair ball touches an umpire on fair territory before passing a fielder. (doesn't state to include or exclude pitcher)
On any interference the ball is dead.
This is confusing and seems circular
Here's the thing, if the runners are allowed to go to the base "they would have attained and are entitled to" how does that wash here? If the ball had not hit the Ump it was an easy 6-4, end of inning play, no runners advance, the batter doesn't get to first.......see my confusion?
Ok, the guy on 2nd gets, technically, left on 3rd and the batter technically gets a FC but you get my drift
Re: I Need Another Clarification - Baseball
Posted: Tue Mar 22, 2011 10:00 pm
umpire should be slapped for being out of position.CatMom wrote:It was ruled a Dead Ball but the runners were allowed to advance and the batter got first.
Explain that one.
One part of Dead ball rule reads
A fair ball touches an umpire before it has passed an infielder other than the pitcher
Interference rule states:
(2) When a fair ball touches an umpire on fair territory before passing a fielder. (doesn't state to include or exclude pitcher)
On any interference the ball is dead.
This is confusing and seems circular
Here's the thing, if the runners are allowed to go to the base "they would have attained and are entitled to" how does that wash here? If the ball had not hit the Ump it was an easy 6-4, end of inning play, no runners advance, the batter doesn't get to first.......see my confusion?
Ok, the guy on 2nd gets, technically, left on 3rd and the batter technically gets a FC but you get my drift
with runners on base, the 2nd base umpire ought to position himself BEHIND second base (so as to cover any plays at that base)